14 Comments
User's avatar
baboon's avatar

"Hopefully others will see what we can see before the virus becomes unstoppable through acquiring fitness it would gain in 900 billion infections over 1000 years within a span of a few months if we start boosting children 0-4 with non-sterilizing vaccines which is inevitable given China has already done it to 3 year olds and India has announced 2-18 year olds."

Horrifying on every level.

Expand full comment
AlmostWrong's avatar

Thanks, I will reply to your other posts in a bit. Fixing the post first, as I want us to have this data included before it starts to look worse and worse for the vaccine if it does go in that direction.

Expand full comment
baboon's avatar

I have a feeling I know what you are talking about, thank you.

Expand full comment
AlmostWrong's avatar

Post updated.

Expand full comment
Jestre's avatar

"You may have heard from many who noticed that susceptibility is higher after the first dose of vaccination for a few weeks.

I want to show you that the assumption that the first dose is related to susceptibility is a kind of association fallacy or bias and instead one may susceptible for more complicated reasons than just that, and that a second dose doesn’t make anyone less susceptible than first dose but timing and condition of recipient might matter. In this UK care home study, 87.5% of the infections in the vaccinated happened after second dose but within 14 days, so not counted as vaccinated."

Let me check double-check that I understand the claim (hypothesis) that you are making. As I understand it, your premise is that people are more susceptible to infection after the virus immediately after each dose (than they were immediately before the dose). Correct so far? That is actually an easy hypothesis to validate with causal significance if we only had a modicum of granular-enough data... which we do not have. The people that have the data seem unwilling or incapable of doing that.. or maybe both. Unclear.

I have long suspected this is the case, personally (from a logical perspective), and your look at the data seems to back this up. But you are also, again if I am not mistaken, saying that the (let's call it) change in susceptibility after the second dose may equal the change after the first dose. That is an extremely hard thing to quantify for a variety of factors, but I will push back on it nonetheless. We can clearly see the first dose leads to negative VE in many different cases across countries and seemingly regardless of situation (except if the virus either does not exist in the population being measured). We do not see the same in the second dose. In fact, we see relatively high VE in many cases. Some of that may be for the reasons you mentioned... but there is another reason that all but guarantees susceptibility is lower after the second dose: the second dose follows the first.

In other words, the first dose makes populations susceptible to the virus, and thus, we are eliminating many candidates from the pool of possible infections during that time period. Infection may not be as robust in the vaccinated as those with natural immunity, but it is still relatively robust. So the second dosers are necessarily less susceptible. Now, if we are talking about a virus naive population, or a single individual, or a small study, this may be true. We can probably even see this in populations like Singapore that had few infections until the population was heavily vaccinated. I wonder if there is data available from there? But I would still be reluctant to believe that the second dose would be equal to the first in this regard (assuming their immune systems learned something from the first dose and susceptibility will be somewhat offset by that learning).

I don't know -- maybe I am missing the point or making a bad point. Or maybe the truth is staring me in the eye and it is too horrific to believe as it would imply we will be living this never ending story as long as they continue to give boosters. Feel free to correct my errors in logic as I am not sure I fully grasp the meaning here.

Expand full comment
Jestre's avatar

Excuse all of my grammar errors in the above post. Substack needs an edit button for the comment section.

Expand full comment
AlmostWrong's avatar

You are going to love this update to the post in the next 3 minutes. Basically yes!

Expand full comment
AlmostWrong's avatar

Wow. that took 3 hours or more but I updated with the granular data. Do you think it makes the case that this the first event and last event in any case study cannot be assumed to be equally likely?

Expand full comment
AlmostWrong's avatar

The virus's best friend will always be the infection promotion measures we instate using elected representatives with our tax money helping to spread the virus via vaccine.

This amazing plan of NOT TESTING ONLY WHEN BOOSTED is literally what the virus would have requested people to do if it wanted to become unstoppable. How can we show objectively that more vaccine has not proven to lead to less virus yet. Is there any limit at which we will think "More vaccine is leading to more virus, even though it's 99% efficacious, that can't possibly be right. Let's stop and think about this."

https://twitter.com/disclosetv/status/1470755078449639429?s=20

Expand full comment
AlmostWrong's avatar

To clarify, I am not saying the first and second doses are equally likely to produce the same outcome, but that any dose is capable of producing the outcome we associate with a specific dose.

For example: We could associate 1 dose with high infection risk for a short time and then drastically lower fears of infection after, especially not after the second dose permanently. This could appear immunologically and empirically true but could be a sampling artifact of the conditions that existed when the first doses were administered globally and the how that changed the landscape rapidly. The second dose may have done the same thing if the population level dynamics were reset to the same state. In this specific case- Astrazeneca second dose was not given and 12 week gap was added because I suspect they realized quickly that Pfizer and AZ are having some kind of negative interaction at the population level. That is not an accident because the thrombosis risk was cited for the pause of 12 week but in reality I believe they saw what India would find out a few months later. The second dose infected more prolifically than the first. There is a suspicion that this could be because AZ killed the susceptibles before they could be infected and only the strong survived for the second but this doesn't explain why this was also the case for the other vaccine whole virus vaccine co-administered (Covaxin) which also had negative efficacy compared to first dose. The easier answer is that the first dose in India was administered during a time of low prevalence and off season without a specific push to find and vaccinate vulnerable. They may have been more susceptible to infection, but there wasn't much virus around to infect them. This changed dramatically when slowly Delta acquired the mutations it needed by serial passaging in newly vaccinated double dosed in late march. Then India kicked into season due to heat -> air-conditioning. BooM. So this way, the first dose couldn't do anything that bad to you other than personal side-effects but it allowed something worse than that, it allowed for people to think they were protected and that allowed delta to be quickly selected and massively spread upon the second dose which would of course only attract the most vulnerable and likely already exposed first. Then cascade begins of people not knowing that the virus engineered a way to attract only those it can infect exactly where and when it can infect them and no-one else. The vaccine didn't change. Only the conditions and virus changed to adapt to whatever best suits persistence and spread. In india, that was subliminal spread with 1 dose and terrorizing spread with second. Noteworthy that one small island territory off the coast of india had zero cases all pandemic and on January 16th they administered the first vaccine and January 18th they had the first cases. That lead to 10,000 cases but most after the second in the delta wave. So the vaccine appears to do exactly the same thing each time, we just change our setting and timing and sometimes it goes horribly wrong, and when it does, the vaccine gets the most uptake and so does the virus. Total amount of virus copies and vaccine injected today is exponentially higher than when this started, and the rate is just increasing.

Expand full comment
baboon's avatar

I still have twitter, just to be clear, you want me to reply to Igor's comment and write:

“reinfection not just by vaccination status but days since last injection status so that reinfection impact due to immunization is seen clearly possible to judge especially susceptibility in the first 3 weeks.”

Is that right? Sorry for being dense, just want to ensure I am doing this correctly.

Expand full comment
AlmostWrong's avatar

And No no, you are not dense, I'm a better writer than a thinker, and I am absolutely terrible at writing and loathe the concept of proof-reading my own words as it causes me to over-correct and tunnel into random branches like Trump at his rallies.

I think just letting the requester know that you also think this would be useful for everyone to follow around the world, if you feel so, then it might spur the agency to include it. Everyone wants to feel helpful and demanded. UKHSA is no different. So just write whatever you wish, or nothing at all but be authentic as it's not right to overrepresent a minority of one (me).

Expand full comment
AlmostWrong's avatar

Thanks so much for asking. I'll fix my post, but I don't need you to write back to anyone at all. Just supporting his request with a "like" is sufficient. I think I will remove the request for more info. If Meghan (the person who is likely going to push the agency to include stratification by public interest shown) gets a sense that something or someone is coordinating this request then she might become skeptical of its utility. I don't want to push people who are willing to give the public information, if they can as long as they don't realize in advance that those same data classifications could be detrimental to the public health campaigns current advocated strategy in the future if the numbers show something they didn't expect. This is why we need to get them to include those numbers now before the "trend line" becomes clearer. As you know, when the trend line shows something they didn't expect, they will censor it. So best is to act early for transparency, without malice or agenda. Just data.

Expand full comment
baboon's avatar

OK, got it, thank you for the clarification.

" I'm a better writer than a thinker, and I am absolutely terrible at writing "

:)

Expand full comment